Class 10 Chapter 14 Sources of Energy PYQs

SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions | Assam Eduverse

SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions are prepared to help students understand conventional and non-conventional sources of energy for the HSLC examination. These SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions include theory-based questions, comparison questions, previous year questions (PYQs), and important MCQs.

The SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions strictly follow the latest SEBA (ASSEB) syllabus for 2026–27. Since students must attempt 45 MCQs in the HSLC Science exam, practising MCQs from SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions is essential.

Topics covered in SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions include fossil fuels, thermal power plants, hydropower plants, solar energy, wind energy, nuclear energy, and environmental consequences of energy use. Students searching for HSLC Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Questions or SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 PYQs will find this resource highly useful for exam preparation.

SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Questions with PYQs and MCQs

Table of Contents

A. Previous Year Questions with Answers

Q1. Which of the following is not a conventional source of energy? [HSLC 2016]
(i) Fossil fuels
(ii) Bio-Mass
(iii) Nuclear energy
(iv) Wind energy
Answer: (iii) Nuclear energy

Q2. Which of the following is not derived from energy of the sun? [HSLC 2018]
(i) Biomass
(ii) Nuclear energy
(iii) Wind energy
(iv) Geothermal energy
Answer: (ii) Nuclear energy

Q3. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source? [HSLC 2019]
(i) wood
(ii) gobar gas
(iii) nuclear energy
(iv) coal
Answer: (iii) nuclear energy

Q4. Which of the following is an example of non-conventional source of energy? [HSLC 2022]
(i) Fossil fuels
(ii) Thermal power plants
(iii) Hydropower plants
(iv) Solar energy
Answer: (iv) Solar energy

Q5. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy? [HSLC 2023]
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Nuclear energy
(iii) Geo-thermal energy
(iv) Wave energy
Answer: (i) Wind energy

Q6. Which of the following is not derived from the Sun’s energy? [HSLC 2024]
(A) Wind energy
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Biomass
Answer: (C) Nuclear energy

Q7. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy? [HSLC 2024]
(A) Sun
(B) Wind
(C) Fossil fuel
(D) Water
Answer: (C) Fossil fuel

Q8. Which of the following processes explains the extraction of the sun’s energy to generate energy to light a bulb? [HSLC 2025]
(a) Conversion of electric energy into solar energy
(b) Conversion of solar energy into electric energy
(c) Conversion of solar energy into kinetic energy
(d) Conversion of kinetic energy into solar energy
Answer: (b) Conversion of solar energy into electric energy

Q9. Which of the following is not based on solar energy? [HSLC 2025]
(a) Wind energy
(b) Nuclear energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Biogas
Answer: (b) Nuclear energy

Q10. Which of the following explains the use of dams? [HSLC 2025]
(a) To replenish underground water resources
(b) To provide irrigation and generate electricity
(c) To provide steady supply of water in hilly regions
(d) To provide water for conservation of forests
Answer: (b) To provide irrigation and generate electricity

B. Extra Questions with Answers

Q1. A good source of energy should —
(i) release a large amount of heat per unit mass
(ii) be difficult to store
(iii) be very expensive
(iv) produce large amount of smoke
Answer: (i) release a large amount of heat per unit mass

Q2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding fossil fuels?
(i) They are renewable sources of energy
(ii) They were formed over millions of years
(iii) They do not cause air pollution
(iv) They are available in unlimited quantity
Answer: (ii) They were formed over millions of years

Q3. Large number of thermal power plants are set up near coal or oil fields because —
(i) coal and petroleum are renewable
(ii) transmission of electricity is more efficient than transporting coal
(iii) water is not required in thermal plants
(iv) they do not cause pollution
Answer: (ii) transmission of electricity is more efficient than transporting coal

Q4. In a hydro power plant, the electricity is generated by using —
(i) kinetic energy of flowing water directly
(ii) potential energy of water stored at height
(iii) chemical energy of water
(iv) heat energy of water
Answer: (ii) potential energy of water stored at height

Q5. When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, the residue left behind is —
(i) coal
(ii) coke
(iii) charcoal
(iv) ash
Answer: (iii) charcoal

Q6. In a biogas plant, the gas is produced due to —
(i) decomposition of slurry in presence of oxygen
(ii) decomposition of slurry in absence of oxygen
(iii) burning of cow-dung
(iv) heating of slurry at high temperature
Answer: (ii) decomposition of slurry in absence of oxygen

Q7. Assertion (A): Wind energy is an environment-friendly source of energy.
Reason (R): Wind energy requires no recurring expenses for production of electricity.

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false but R is true
Answer: (ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Q8. Which of the following conditions is necessary for setting up a wind energy farm?
(i) Wind speed should be less than 5 km/h
(ii) Wind speed should be higher than 15 km/h
(iii) It can be set up anywhere
(iv) Small area of land is sufficient
Answer: (ii) Wind speed should be higher than 15 km/h

Q9. Match the following:

Column A | Column B
(a) Bio-gas | (1) Falling water
(b) Hydro power | (2) Methane
(c) Solar cell | (3) Silicon
(d) Windmill | (4) Rotatory motion

(i) a–2, b–1, c–3, d–4
(ii) a–1, b–2, c–4, d–3
(iii) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1
(iv) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
Answer: (i) a–2, b–1, c–3, d–4

Q10. When a black and a white painted flask filled with water are kept in sunlight for one hour, the water in the black flask becomes hotter because —
(i) black surface reflects more heat
(ii) white surface absorbs more heat
(iii) black surface absorbs more heat
(iv) black surface produces heat
Answer: (iii) black surface absorbs more heat

Q11. Which gas is produced in large amount during decomposition of slurry in a biogas plant?
(i) Oxygen
(ii) Nitrogen
(iii) Methane
(iv) Hydrogen chloride
Answer: (iii) Methane

Q12. The main component of bio-gas which makes it an excellent fuel is —
(i) Carbon dioxide
(ii) Methane
(iii) Hydrogen sulphide
(iv) Nitrogen
Answer: (ii) Methane

Q13. A typical solar cell develops a voltage of about —
(i) 0.05–0.1 V
(ii) 0.5–1 V
(iii) 5–10 V
(iv) 50–100 V
Answer: (ii) 0.5–1 V

Q14. A large number of solar cells combined together form a —
(i) Solar cooker
(ii) Solar heater
(iii) Solar panel
(iv) Solar reflector
Answer: (iii) Solar panel

Q15. The energy obtained from the difference in temperature between the surface water and deep water of the ocean is called —
(i) Tidal energy
(ii) Wave energy
(iii) Ocean thermal energy
(iv) Geothermal energy
Answer: (iii) Ocean thermal energy

Q16. Tidal energy is harnessed by —
(i) constructing a dam across a narrow opening to the sea
(ii) using mirrors to focus sunlight
(iii) drilling deep wells in the earth
(iv) burning fossil fuels
Answer: (i) constructing a dam across a narrow opening to the sea

Q17. Assertion (A): Geothermal energy can be obtained from hot spots inside the earth’s crust.
Reason (R): Steam produced in hot spots can be used to rotate a turbine.

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false but R is true
Answer: (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q18. In a nuclear reactor, energy is produced by —
(i) chemical reaction
(ii) nuclear fusion
(iii) nuclear fission
(iv) combustion
Answer: (iii) nuclear fission

Q19. Which of the following is a major hazard of nuclear power generation?
(i) Production of smoke
(ii) Storage and disposal of radioactive waste
(iii) Low heat generation
(iv) Requirement of large wind speed
Answer: (ii) Storage and disposal of radioactive waste

Q20. Match the following:

Column A | Column B
(a) Thermal power plant | (1) Burning of fossil fuels
(b) Hydro power plant | (2) Flowing water at height
(c) Wind energy | (3) Unequal heating of land and water
(d) Geothermal energy | (4) Hot spots inside earth

(i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(ii) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(iii) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(iv) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
Answer: (i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4

Q21. The phenomenon of rise and fall of sea level due to the gravitational pull of the moon is called —
(i) Ocean current
(ii) Tides
(iii) Waves
(iv) Ocean thermal difference
Answer: (ii) Tides

Q22. Ocean thermal energy conversion plants can operate when the temperature difference between surface water and deep water is at least —
(i) 5 K
(ii) 10 K
(iii) 20 K
(iv) 50 K
Answer: (iii) 20 K

Q23. The ultimate source of energy for wind energy is —
(i) Moon
(ii) Sun
(iii) Earth’s core
(iv) Nuclear reactor
Answer: (ii) Sun

Q24. In the activity demonstrating generation of electricity using steam, the steam rotates —
(i) generator directly
(ii) turbine blades
(iii) bulb filament
(iv) battery
Answer: (ii) turbine blades

Q25. Which of the following is an exhaustible source of energy?
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Solar energy
(iii) Fossil fuels
(iv) Tidal energy
Answer: (iii) Fossil fuels

Q26. Assertion (A): Solar cells are useful in remote and inaccessible areas.
Reason (R): Laying power transmission lines to such areas may be expensive and not commercially viable.

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false but R is true
Answer: (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q27. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from solar energy?
(i) Biomass
(ii) Wind energy
(iii) Geothermal energy
(iv) Fossil fuels
Answer: (iii) Geothermal energy

Q28. The slurry left behind in a biogas plant is used as —
(i) fuel
(ii) fertiliser rich in nitrogen and phosphorous
(iii) coolant
(iv) lubricant
Answer: (ii) fertiliser rich in nitrogen and phosphorous

Q29. Match the following:

Column A | Column B
(a) Solar cooker | (1) Greenhouse effect
(b) Wind energy farm | (2) Large area of land
(c) Nuclear fission | (3) Heavy nucleus splitting
(d) Charcoal | (4) Limited supply of oxygen

(i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(ii) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(iii) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(iv) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
Answer: (i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4

Q30. The major gases responsible for acid rain formed due to burning of fossil fuels are —
(i) Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur
(ii) Oxygen and nitrogen
(iii) Hydrogen and helium
(iv) Methane and ammonia
Answer: (i) Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur

Q31. Which of the following statements about hydro power is correct?
(i) It is a non-renewable source of energy
(ii) It depends on the rainfall for refilling reservoirs
(iii) It produces large amount of smoke
(iv) It does not require dams
Answer: (ii) It depends on the rainfall for refilling reservoirs

Q32. One disadvantage of constructing large dams is —
(i) production of oxygen
(ii) submergence of agricultural land and human habitation
(iii) unlimited electricity generation
(iv) no environmental impact
Answer: (ii) submergence of agricultural land and human habitation

Q33. When vegetation submerged under water in dams rots under anaerobic conditions, it produces large amounts of —
(i) Oxygen
(ii) Nitrogen
(iii) Methane
(iv) Hydrogen
Answer: (iii) Methane

Q34. In a nuclear fission reaction, the energy released is due to —
(i) increase in mass
(ii) decrease in mass converted into energy
(iii) chemical reaction
(iv) combustion of fuel
Answer: (ii) decrease in mass converted into energy

Q35. Which of the following requires wind speed higher than 15 km/h for effective operation?
(i) Solar cell
(ii) Wind energy farm
(iii) Biogas plant
(iv) Nuclear reactor
Answer: (ii) Wind energy farm

Q36. Assertion (A): Charcoal is a better fuel than wood.
Reason (R): Charcoal burns without flame and has higher heat generation efficiency.

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false but R is true
Answer: (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q37. Which of the following is an advantage of solar cells?
(i) They have moving parts
(ii) They require frequent maintenance
(iii) They can be used in remote areas
(iv) They are very cheap to manufacture
Answer: (iii) They can be used in remote areas

Q38. The process in which a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei on bombardment with neutrons is called —
(i) Nuclear fusion
(ii) Nuclear fission
(iii) Combustion
(iv) Oxidation
Answer: (ii) Nuclear fission

Q39. Match the following:

Column A | Column B
(a) Tidal energy | (1) Gravitational pull of moon
(b) Ocean thermal energy | (2) Temperature difference in sea
(c) Geothermal energy | (3) Hot springs
(d) Wind energy | (4) Unequal heating of land and water

(i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(ii) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(iii) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(iv) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
Answer: (i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4

Q40. Renewable sources of energy are those which —
(i) get depleted after some time
(ii) cannot be regenerated
(iii) can be regenerated and replenished
(iv) are formed over millions of years
Answer: (iii) can be regenerated and replenished

Q41. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(i) Coal
(ii) Petroleum
(iii) Wind energy
(iv) Natural gas
Answer: (iii) Wind energy

Q42. The use of mirrors in some solar cookers helps to —
(i) reflect heat away
(ii) reduce temperature
(iii) focus more sunlight to raise temperature
(iv) produce electricity
Answer: (iii) focus more sunlight to raise temperature

Q43. Which of the following is a limitation of solar energy?
(i) It causes air pollution
(ii) It is available only during certain times of the day
(iii) It produces harmful gases
(iv) It cannot be converted into electricity
Answer: (ii) It is available only during certain times of the day

Q44. For generating 1 MW of electricity using wind energy, approximately how much land area is required?
(i) 0.2 hectare
(ii) 1 hectare
(iii) 2 hectares
(iv) 10 hectares
Answer: (iii) 2 hectares

Q45. Which of the following statements is correct about nuclear energy?
(i) It produces smoke like fossil fuels
(ii) It involves combustion of coal
(iii) It releases tremendous energy from small amount of fuel
(iv) It is completely risk-free
Answer: (iii) It releases tremendous energy from small amount of fuel

Q46. Assertion (A): Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy.
Reason (R): Solar energy is the ultimate source for biomass, wind and fossil fuels.

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false but R is true
Answer: (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q47. Which of the following is an example of an inexhaustible source of energy?
(i) Coal
(ii) Petroleum
(iii) Solar energy
(iv) Natural gas
Answer: (iii) Solar energy

Q48. The gas used to boil a volatile liquid like ammonia in ocean thermal energy conversion plants is heated by —
(i) deep sea water
(ii) warm surface water
(iii) underground steam
(iv) nuclear fuel
Answer: (ii) warm surface water

Q49. Match the following:

Column A | Column B
(a) Bio-mass | (1) Plant and animal waste
(b) Fossil fuels | (2) Formed over millions of years
(c) Solar cell | (3) Converts light into electricity
(d) Nuclear fusion | (4) Joining of light nuclei

(i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(ii) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(iii) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(iv) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
Answer: (i) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4

Q50. The qualities of an ideal source of energy include —
(i) low heat output and high cost
(ii) easy storage and transport
(iii) difficult accessibility
(iv) large production of smoke
Answer: (ii) easy storage and transport

SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions for HSLC Exam 2026–27

The SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions provided here are prepared according to the latest SEBA (ASSEB) syllabus 2026–27. These SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions include conceptual MCQs, short answer questions, long answer questions, and analytical comparison-based questions aligned with the HSLC exam pattern.

As per the latest HSLC structure, students must answer 45 MCQs. Therefore, regular practice of SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions ensures strong preparation for MCQ-based and reasoning-type questions.

The SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions cover advantages and disadvantages of thermal power plants, hydropower plants, solar cells, wind energy systems, and nuclear power plants. Continuous revision using SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions improves conceptual clarity and comparative understanding.

These Class 10 Sources of Energy Important Questions with MCQs are ideal for final revision. Consistent practice of SEBA Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Important Extra Questions strengthens exam confidence and scoring performance.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

1. Why is Chapter 14 Sources of Energy important for HSLC exam?

This chapter explains conventional and non-conventional sources of energy and their advantages and disadvantages frequently asked in HSLC Science exams.

2. How many MCQs are asked in HSLC Science exam?

Students must answer 45 MCQs as per the latest HSLC Science examination pattern.

3. Are MCQs included in Sources of Energy important questions?

Yes, important conceptual and comparison-based MCQs are included according to the updated HSLC exam structure.

4. Are these questions based on SEBA syllabus?

Yes, all questions are prepared strictly according to the latest SEBA (ASSEB) syllabus for 2026–27.

5. Do these include previous year questions?

Yes, previous year questions are included to help students understand HSLC exam trends.

6. Which topics are covered in Chapter 14?

Topics include fossil fuels, hydropower, solar energy, wind energy, nuclear energy, and environmental consequences of energy use.

7. Can practising these improve exam performance?

Yes, regular revision improves conceptual clarity, comparative understanding, and MCQ accuracy in the HSLC examination.

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